Let's say that I am playing a deep stacked cash game (1/3 or 2/5) and I open from MP. I am being 3Bet pretty relentlessly (I am unable to change seats or tables) and just got 3Bet again and it folds back to me. I have very strong evidence that I am being 3Bet wide and have, therefore, tightened my MP opening range from, say, 22+, A2s+, KTs+, QTs+, JTs, ATo+, KTo+, QTo+, JTo to, say, by about 5% to 77+, ATs+, A5s, A2s, KTs+, QTs+, JTs, ATo+, KTo+, QTo+, JTo (perhaps this hypothetical initial range and the adjustment is not optimal, but please bare with me).
If I adopted the strategy discussed by Nick in EP 106 whereby I decide to call 3Bets heads-up from wide 3Betting Villains with my strong/medium strength hands and 4Bet with my weak hands (obviously, a short-term strategy to take in order to exploit opponents prior to them adjusting), what would be the hands you would consider the weak ones to 4Bet with within my opening range of 77+, ATs+, A5s, A2s, KTs+, QTs+, JTs, ATo+, KTo+, QTo+, JTo. Should I be thinking in absolute terms here or should I be thinking about which hands are ahead of/tied with Villain's range (to call with) and which are behind Villain's range (to 4Bet with). Just trying to understand this strategy of polarizing my 4Betting range with some concrete examples.
Also, how deep should stacks be in order to implement a polarized 4Bet strategy (or a NO pre-flop 4Bet range strategy)...Should I be thinking of utilizing when my calling of the 3Bet would realize an SPR >=6 but 4Bet lesser SPRs?
Thanks, Rizen!