Eric, you are a lifesaver, this membership is worth every penny!
Here's a hand that puzzled me at the time it was played and still bugging me for days. It was a 2-5NL game, 9 seated, I was in the BB with a stack of $1220. I was dealt Qc10c. UTG limped, MP1 limped, MP2 limped, button limped, SB called and I checked. 6 to the flop. Flop was 9c6c2h. BB bets $15, I called, UTG folded, MP1 raises to $60, MP2 shoves all-in for $139 and it was folded to me. MP1 has a stack of about $540.
This is my thinking at this point (and please correct me if I'm wrong): there is $259 in the pot, before rake, and it will cost $124 to call. I am not getting the right pot odds. If I raise all-in and get MP2 to fold, then I will still need to hit my flush in order to win and there is no implied odds. As such, fold equity needs to be at zero. If I call, then while there maybe the right impled odds against MP2, what if he re-raises all-in? And what if he just calls, and when I hit the flush on the turn and he folds to a bet I make? Then we're back to wrong pot odds. I felt I had no choice but to fold.
My questions: Was folding the correct play? If not, should I have raised or call? Also, did I play pre-flop correctly, and did I call the $15 correctly when BB bet or should I have raised at that point? Thanks again for all your help.