I have played with villain in the past. He is on the conservative side but over values pairs , draws and is capable of river bluffs.
Regarding the hand, due to preflop action and card removal effects, I was fairly certain villain did not have AA, KK, or AK. And if he had Ax wouldn't he just call and not jam. Therefore, the only hand that made sense to me for villain to shove was 55. The only other hands that made sense were 2 pair (AK, A5), but again, not likely due to card removal but definitely possible, and definitely beat me! I literally couldn't think of any other holdings villain would shove with (versus call). BUT since I'm working hard on putting players on a range and not 1 or 2 specific holdings (something still very much in the learning process and a goal everytime I play), I made the call thinking maybe a spazzy QQ, JJ, KQ shove or villain overvaluing Ax. I also took into consideration the low SPR, and that I was getting 2:1 pots odds so only needed 33% equity to make the call which I figured I had with top pair, as well as backdoor flush and straight draws.
Now, plugging into poker cruncher, villain needed a very tight range of KK+, 55, AQs+, A5s, AQo+, A5o for this not to be a call. Add QQ and it is very close (31%) and add just 1 more hand like JJ or AJ and it's a clear call.
So my question is, in this specific scenario, did I take the literal translation of a hand range too far and instead, should have trusted my hand analysis of narrowing down to pocket 5s or 2 pair when I couldn't come up with anything else? Or was calling correct based on the need to add in a few more holdings to his range (and the low SPR)? I actually wanted to fold but forced myself to call based on thinking I needed to add more hands/semi bluffs to his range. Also, if there are other factors I should have considered please advise.
Thank you!